See WAEC Geography Questions and  Answers 2024 for Essay Objective Here.

The Waec geography answers 2024 have been outlined in this post. The West African Examination Council (WAEC) Geography paper will be written on Wednesday, 6th December, 2023.

Essentially, Waec Gce Geography 2023 exam will comprise Papers 2 & 1 Essay and Objective, which will commence at 9.30 am and end by 12.30 pm. That means the examination will last for three hours (3hrs) only.

In this post, we will be posting samples of the waec geography questions for candidates that will participate in the examination for practice purposes.

Waec Geography Answers 2024.

1. Write a geographical account of rail transport under the following headings:
(a) economic importance;
(b) problems;
(c) solutions.
ANS: (b) Problems of rail transportation included:
– slow speed in developing countries;
– derailment due to flooding;
– poor time schedule;
– poor standard coaches;
– competition from other modes of transportation e.g. road and air;
– the high cost of construction affected by steep gradient/terrain;
– the high cost of spare parts, etc.
(c) The solutions to those problems included:
– wider gauges to increase speed;
– faster engines and coaches;
– proper planning and timing of movement schedules;
– improved management techniques;
– loans from banks;
– internal manufacturing of spare parts, etc.

2. (a) Describe any three factors responsible for the dominance of light industries in developing countries.

(b) Highlight any four advantages of the concentration of industries in urban areas of developing countries.

(c) Outline any three disadvantages of the concentration of industries in the urban areas of developing countries.

3. (a) Define the following population terms:
i) census;
ii) mortality rate;
(b) family planning. Outline any three problems confronting a country that is overpopulated.
(c) Highlight any three ways by which the problem of overpopulation can be solved.

4. (a) Highlight any five factors that have accounted for the world’s rapid population growth.
(b) Outline any five problems of rapid population growth.
ANS: (a) The factors that have accounted for the world’s rapid population growth include:
–  polygamy;
– early marriage;
– advancement in science and technology;
– improved medical care;
– low mortality rate;
– industrialization
– poor family planning.

5. (a) State four reasons for the concentration of manufacturing industries in the capital cities of Tropical African Countries.
(b) Give three reasons for the predominance of consumer-oriented industries in Tropical Africa.
(c) Describe three contributions of manufacturing industries to the economic development of Tropical African Countries.

6. Draw an outline map of Nigeria. On the map, mark and name
(a) Two areas of low population density;
(b) Two areas of high population density;
(c) One town in one of the high population density areas shown in a(ii) above.
(d) Highlight any three problems associated with high population density in Nigeria.
(e) Explain the ways of solving any two of the problems of population density highlighted in 6(b) above.

7. (a) Describe any three causes of air pollution.
(b) Outline the three major effects of air pollution.
(c) Suggest two ways of controlling air pollution.
Ans: The candidates were expected to describe the following causes of air pollution:
–  odour as a result of improper disposal
– emission of smoke from domestic sources
–  fumes from exhaust of vehicles and airplanes
–   industrial waste and fumes
– dust from the explosion of bombs and other dangerous weapons
– artificial cloud seeding
– chloroform carbon (CFC) from the cooling system and sprays
–  noise from loudspeakers and aeroplanes.

8. (a) Draw an outline map of West Africa. On it locate and name:
(i) one area of the dense population;
(ii) one area of the sparse population;
(iii) an important town in each area;
(iv) the River Niger.
(b) Explain four factors that have led to the high population in the area shown on your map.
(c) Highlight two problems of sparse population density.

9. Describe the savannah belt of Africa under the following headings:
(a) location;
(b) vegetation characteristics;
(c) uses.

Waec Geography Objective Questions 2024.

1. Villages develop into urban centres when they ____
A. attract more people
B. produce enough food
C. establish educational institutions
D. grow in commerce and industry.

2. By how many times will a map measuring 12cm by 7cm be enlarged to make its area 336cm2?
A. Twice
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times.

3. Eluviation is the process by which _______
A. Soluble substances are removed from the upper layers of the soil
B. soluble substances are deposited in the upper layers of the soil
C. fine particles are removed from one layer of the soil to another
D. fine particles are deposited in the upper layers of the soil.

4. Transhumance is the seasonal migration of livestock ______
A. from the lowlands to the uplands
B. from the north to the south following the rains
C. in the semiarid steppes
D. in search of water and pasture.

5. Variations in the lengths of day and night over the earth’s surface are due to the _____
A. earth’s inclination to the sun and its revolution
B. earth’s inclination to the sun and its rotation
C. length of the earth’s orbit
D. thickness of the earth’s atmosphere.

6. The progressive widening of joints and cracks in limestone by solutions, initially leads to the formation of ______
A. grikes and clints
B. stalactites and stalagmites
C. caves and caverns
D. cliffs and dry valleys.

7. When condensation occurs in a rising air mass, latent heat is _____
A. absorbed by carbon dioxide
B. lost to the atmosphere
C. stored in the water molecules
D. released as sensible heat.

8. Two cloud types of a great vertical extent that produce much rainfall are _____
A. cumulus and stratus
B. cumulus and cumulo-nimbus
C. cumulo-nimbus and nimbostratus
D. strato-cumulus and nimbostratus.

9. The cheapest means of transport for long-distance travel is by _____
A. rail
B. water
C. air
D. road.

10. If the distance between two points on a map with a scale 1:50,000 is 35mm, what is the distance between them on the ground?
A. 1.50 km
B. 1.55 km
C. 1.75 km
D. 1.85 km.

11. If a map has a scale of 1: 50,000 and a cocoa plantation is represented on the map by a rectangle 5 cm by 4 cm, what is the area of the plantation?
A. 5 km2
B.6km2
C. 20km2
D. 25km2.

12. On which of the following pairs of dates is the length of day and night equal on the earth’s surface?
A. June 21st and September 21st
B. March 22nd and December 22nd
C. June 21st and December 22nd
D. March 21st and September 23rd.

13. Lakes formed as a result of landslides, screes or avalanches are known as _____
A. man-made lakes
B. barrier lakes
C. caldera lakes
D. rock-hollow lakes.

14. Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions?
A. Accelerated erosion
B. Water pollution
C. Frost damage
D. acid rain.

15. The crossing of a boundary between two countries by a migrant is best described as ____
A. emigration
B. Immigration
C. Out-migration
D. international migration.

16. A process whereby a plant community is replaced by another is known as ________
A. colonization
B. succession
C. competition
D. consolidation.

17. The duration of sunshine is measured by the ______
A. aneroid barometer
B. Campbell-Stokes recorder
C. cup-anemometer
D. minimum-maximum thermometers.

18. Quartz, feldspar and mica are three principal minerals that can easily be seen in _____
A. basalt
B. coal
C. granite
D. limestone.

19. The rock with the least carbon content is ______
A. Coal
B. Sandstone
C. marble
D. lignite.

20. The process by which organic matter is decomposed and synthesized to form part of the soil is known as ______
A. humification
B. mineralization
C. lateralization
D. nitrification.

21. Which of the following groups consists of energy resources?
A. Petroleum, uranium and manganese
B. Coal, bauxite and uranium
C. Water, copper and sun
D. Coal, petroleum and water.

22. A piece of evidence that confirms that the earth is spherical is _______
A. Standard time
B. solar system
C. earth’s orbit
D. moon’s eclipse.

23. A tremendous pressure or temperature change may lead to the formation of ______
A. limestone
B. granite
C. gneiss
D. clay.

24.  Which of the following sources of power supply is renewable?
A. Solar
B. Coal
C. Gas
D. Nuclear.

25. Hygrometer is used to measure ______
A. rainfall
B. wind direction
C. relative humidity
D. sunshine.

26. The largest ocean in the world is the _______
A. Atlantic Ocean
B. Indian Ocean
C. Arctic Ocean
D. Pacific Ocean.

27. Rock minerals are said to be crystalline when the atoms forming them are _______
A. found in sedimentary rocks
B. found in crystalline rocks
C. arranged in a definite pattern
D. arranged vertically.

28. The difference in time between two longitudes is approximately ______
A. 15 hours
B. 40 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 4 minutes.

29. A slope is said to be even when the contours are _________
A. equally spaced
B. concentric
C. closely spaced
D. irregularly spaced.

30.

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