NNPC Recruitment Past Questions and Answers Pdf [2019]

Get NNPC Recruitment Past Questions and Answers 2019 Pdf Here Free.

The Nnpc recruitment past questions have been made available here for study purposes. Following the conclusion of the online application for the Nigerian National Petroleum Corporation (NNPC) recruitment 2019, next is the aptitude test which is expected to be a Computer Based Test (CBT).

We have decided to post samples of the Nnpc past assessment test questions from previously conducted NNPC recruitment exercise and other oil and gas sector exams.

Note that the nnpc questions can come from various fields of study like quantitative reasoning, physics, engineering, further mathematics, geology, economics, history, chemistry, general knowledge etc. The aptitude test will hold on Saturday, 1st June, 2019, so it is best to start preparation immediately by studying the sample questions here and your Gmat books.

nnpc past questions 2019

Candidates, who got the shortlisting e-mail are to note that, according to the NNPC management, they will get their screening venues and other details from Monday, 27th May, 2019.

NNPC Recruitment Past Questions and Answers:

You can practice with the following sample questions for the NNPC Recruitment Aptitude test / examination;

In each of the following questions [1 – 5] find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

1) CUP : LIP :: BIRD : ?

2) Flow : River :: Stagnant : ?
A. Rain
B. Stream
C. Pool
D. Canal

3) Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?
A. Lamb
B. Elephant
C. Lion
D. Horse

4) Ornithologist : Bird :: Archealogist : ?
A. Islands
B. Mediators
C. Archealogy
D. Aquatic

5) Peacock : India :: Bear : ?
A. Australia
B. America
C. Russia
D. England

For questions 6 – 11, select the correct answer:

6) I don’t know_____.
A. where is your pen
B. where your pen is
C. where your is pen
D. where is the pen of yours

7. If you want to see him, ______.
A. please let me to know
B. let me to know please
C. please let me know
D. let me please to be known

8. ­­­­­_______, the little girl ran out of the yard.
A. Being afraid of the dog
B. The dog she is afraid of
C. The dog has been afraid of
D. Was being afraid of the dog

9. The manager_____ here at 4 p.m.
A.  is supposing to arrive
B. is supposed to arrive
C. will suppose to arrive
D. is supposed to be arrived

10. Due to the devaluation, many people have become rich, but many others _______.
A. ruined
B. have been ruined
C. have ruined
D. would have ruined

11. The man has been hospitalized since yesterday ______.
A. because his serious wound
B. because of his serious wound
C. because of his seriously wound
D. because his wound seriously

Questions 12 – 17 refer to the following: A tank is a vertical cylinder with inside diameter of 6ft and a height of 15ft.

12) What is the volume of liquid in cubic feet if we fill the tank to one foot high?
A.  28.27 ft3
B.  18.8 ft3
C.  113.1 ft3
D.  424.1 ft3.

13) What is the total volume of the tank in cubic feet?
A.  1686.5 ft3
B.  442.5 ft3
C.  424.1 ft3
D.  847.5 ft3.

14) What is the volume of water in cubic ft in the tank if a measure stick indicates the water surface is 6 feet below the top of the tank?
A.  170.2 ft3
B.  254.4 ft3
C.  1017.9 ft3
D.  678.6 ft3.

15) What is the weight in pounds of the tank, as in the above case, if the tank itself weighs 20 lbs per ft of height?
A.  63,424 lbs
B.  42,241 lbs
C.  16,151 lbs
D.  10,605 lbs.

16) How much water in gallons would have to be removed to reduce the total weight of the tank plus water, as in the above case, by 20%?
A.  388 gals
B.  3,230 gals
C.  2,121 gals
D.  626 gals.

17) What would be the new level of the water, as measured from the top of the tank, if the water in the above case (equivalent of 20% of total weight) is removed?
A.  10.4 ft
B.  12.7 ft
C.  7.1 ft
D.  7.8 ft.

18) Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
A. 173 m
B. 200 m
C. 273 m
D. 300 m

19) A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30° with the man’s eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the angle of the elevation becomes 60°. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the point P?
A. 43 units
B. 8 units
C. 12 units
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

20) The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
A. 2.3 m
B. 4.6 m
C. 7.8 m
D. 9.2 m

21) An observer 1.6 m tall is 203 away from a tower. The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 30°. The heights of the tower is:
A. 21.6 m
B. 23.2 m
C. 24.72 m
D. None of these

22) From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30°. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:
A. 149 m
B. 156 m
C. 173 m
D. 200 m

nnpc recruitment answers

Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series [23 – 27].

23) 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
A. 35
B. 38
C. 39
D. 40

24) 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?
A. 58965
B. 65423
C. 89654
D. 96542

25) 3, 10, 101,?
A. 10101
B. 10201
C. 10202
D. 11012

26) In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, …… what will be the 8th term ?
A. 4370
B. 4374
C. 7443
D. 7434

27) 125,80,45,20,?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

For questions 28 – 31, choose the correct tense for the verbs in brackets:

28) I usually go by train, but this weekend I am going by bus. It (take) longer but it costs less.
A. take
B. takes
C. is taken
D. will take

29) I (not think) your brother is enjoying the party. He keeps looking at his watch.
A. doesn’t think
B. didn’t think
C. don’t think
D. am not thinking

30) The hall (be) painted at the moment, so it isn’t looking its best.
A. is being
B. is
C. is to be
D. will be

31) At present I’m having my typewriter (repair).
A. repairing
B. repaired
C. is repaired
D. being repaired

32) In a regular week, there are 5 working days and for each day, the working hours are 8. A man gets N2.40 per hour for regular work and N3.20 per hours for overtime. If he earns N432 in 4 weeks, then how many hours does he work for?
A. 160
B. 175
C. 180
D. 195

Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.

33. In a cricket team, the average age of eleven players in 28 years. What is the age of the captain?
I. The captain is eleven years older than the youngest player.
II. The average age of 10 players, other than the captain is 27.3 years.
III. Leaving aside the captain and the youngest player, the average ages of three groups of three players each are 25 years, 28 years and 30 years respectively.
A. Any two of the three
B. All I, II and III
C. II only or I and III only
D. II and III only
E. None of these

34. In a two-digit, if it is known that its unit’s digit exceeds its ten’s digit by 2 and that the product of the given number and the sum of its digits is equal to 144, then the number is:
A. 24
B. 26
C. 42
D. 46

35. Find a positive number which when increased by 17 is equal to 60 times the reciprocal of the number.
A. 3
B. 10
C. 17
D. 20

36. Ayesha’s father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.

37. What is the present age of Tanya?
I. The ratio between the present ages of Tanya and her brother Rahul is 3 : 4 respectively.
II. After 5 years the ratio between the ages of Tanya and Rahul will be 4 : 5.
III. Rahul is 5 years older than Tanya.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. All I, II and III
E. Any two of the three.

38. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, the number of valid votes that the other candidate got, was:
A. 2700
B. 2900
C. 3000
D. 3100

39. A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 kg of rice of other variety at Rs. 36 per kg and sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. His profit percent is:
A. No profit, no loss
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 10%
E. None of these.

40. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every second. Approximately, how many seconds will it take for the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth?
A. 178
B. 195
C. 204
D. 488

41. A takes twice as much time as B or thrice as much time as C to finish a piece of work. Working together, they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in:
A. 4 days
B.6 days
C.8 days
D. 12 days

42. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:
A. 0.934
B. 0.945
C. 0.954
D. 0.958

43. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log10 80 is:
A. 1.6020
B. 1.9030
C. 3.9030
D. None of these

44. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park (in sq. m) is:
A. 15360
B. 153600
C. 30720
D. 307200

45. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its curved surface.
A. 30m2
B. 40m2
C. 60m2
D. 80m2

46. A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30° with the man’s eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the angle of the elevation becomes 60°. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the point P?
A. 43 units
B. 8 units
C. 12 units
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
47. Insert the missing number.
8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (….)
A. 27
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24

48. Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word in the question below.
A. principal
B. curriculum
C. employment
D. graduation

49. Every one of the following questions consists of a related pair of words, followed by five pairs of words. Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the original pair of words.
A. layer : tier
B. tether : bundle
C. chapter : verse
D. riser : stage
E. dais : speaker.

50. First, you will be given a list of three “nonsense” words and their English word meanings. The question(s) that follow will ask you to reverse the process and translate an English word into the artificial language.
Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
hapllesh means cloudburst
srenchoch means pinball
resbosrench means ninepin
Which word could mean “cloud nine”?
A. leshsrench
B. ochhapl
C. haploch
D. haplresbo

51. Translate from an imaginary language into English. Then, look for the word elements that appear both on the list and in the answer choices.
Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
malgauper means peach cobbler
malgaport means peach juice
moggagrop means apple jelly
Which word could mean “apple juice”?
A. moggaport
B. malgaauper
C. gropport
D. moggagrop

52. Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement may be true, false, or uncertain.
Joe is younger than Kathy.
Mark was born after Joe.
Kathy is older than Mark.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

53. Diesel used in naval applications has a minimum cetane number of
A. 25
B. 35
C. 45
D. 65

54. Which of the following tests is not done for transformer oil ?
A. Flash point and acid value.
B. Aniline point.
C. Dielectric strength.
D. Copper strip corrosion test.

55. Which is the most undesirable component in kerosene ?
A. Aromatics
B. i-paraffins
C. n-paraffins
D. Naphthenes

56. Pick out the wrong statement about the smoking tendency of various hydrocarbon constituents of kerosene.
A. Smoking tendency of hydrocarbons increases in the order : paraffins → isoparaffins → naphthenes → aromatics.
B. Smoking tendency of paraffins increases with decrease in its molecular weight.
C. Smoking tendency of naphthenes decreases with its increasing molecular weight & also on addition of double bond.
D. Smoking tendency of aromatics decreases with increase in its molecular weight.

57. Solvent used in duo-sol extraction for lube oil upgradation is a mixture of
A. propane & phenol-cresol mixture.
B. methyl ethyl ketone & glycol.
C. phenol & furfural.
D. propane & liquid sulphur dioxide.

58. Which of the following fractions of a crude oil will have the maximum gravity API (i.e. °API) ?
A. Diesel
B. Gasoline
C. Atmospheric gas oil
D. Vacuum gas oil

59. For gasoline, the flash point (<50°C) is determined by the
A. Abel apparatus.
B. Pensky-Marten’s apparatus.
C. Saybolt chromometer.
D. none of these.

60. Flash point of atmospheric distillation residue is determined by __________ apparates.
A. Pensky-Martens (closed cup type).
B. Abel.
C. Cleveland (open cup type)
D. none of these.

61. Maximum sulphur percentage in low sulphur heavy stock (LSHS) furnace oil is about
A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 2.5
D. 3.5

62. Pour point and freezing point is equal for
A. petrol
B. diesel
C. water
D. crude petroleum.

In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and thus find the correct answer from alternatives.

63. 1. Key
2. Door
3. Lock
4. Room
5. Switch on
A. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
B. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

64. 1. Word
2. Paragraph
3. Sentence
4. Letters
5. Phrase
A. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
B. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
4, 2, 5, 1, 3
4, 1, 5, 3, 2

65. 1. Police
2. Punishment
3. Crime
4. Judge
5. Judgement
A. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
C. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

66. 1. Family
2. Community
3. Member
4. Locality
5. Country
A. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
B. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
C. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

67. 1. Poverty
2. Population
3. Death
4. Unemployment
5. Disease
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
C. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

68. 1. Leaf
2. Fruit
3. Stem
4. Root
5. Flower
A. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
B. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
C. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

69. 1. Nation
2. Village
3. City
4. District
5. State
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

70. 1. Caste
2. Family
3. Newly married Couple
4. Clan
5. Species
A. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
B. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

71. 1. Cut
2. Put on
3. Mark
4. Measure
5. Tailor
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
B. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2

72. 1. House
2. Street
3. Room
4. Town
5. District
A. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
C. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.

73. WFB, TGD, QHG, ?
Answer: Option B

74. AZ, GT, MN, ?, YB

75. H, I, K, N, ?
A. O
B. Q
C. R
D. S

76. Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, G, ?, ?
A. N, C
B. N, D
C. O, C
D. O, D

77. b e d f ? h j ? l
A. i m
B. m i
C. i n
D. j m

78. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Suresh related to that boy?
A. Brother
B. Uncle
C. Cousin
D. Father

79. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A – B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
A. Q – N + M x P
B. P + S x N – Q
C. P – M + N x Q
D. Q – S % P

80. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
A. Brother
B. Sister
C. Nephew
D. Cannot be determined

81. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A – B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
A. M – N x C + F
B. F – C + N x M
C. N + M – F x C
D. M x N – C + F

82. Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle.” How is the boy related to the girl?
A. Brother
B. Nephew
C. Uncle
D. Son-in-law.

Three of the words will be in the same classification, the remaining one will not be. Your answer will be the one word that does NOT belong in the same classification as the others.

83. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. parsley
B. basil
C. dill
D. mayonnaise

84. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
B. ounce
C. centimeter
D. yard

85. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. tyre
B. steering wheel
C. engine
D. car

86. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. tulip
B. rose
C. bud
D. daisy

87. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. rye
B. sourdough
C. pumpernickel
D. loaf

88. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to
A. speed
B. hiking
C. needle
D. direction

89. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
A. winter
B. bear
C. dream
D. sleep

90. Window is to pane as book is to
A. novel
B. glass
C. cover
D. page

91. Cup is to coffee as bowl is to
A. dish
B. soup
C. spoon
D. food

92. Yard is to inch as quart is to
A. gallon
B. ounce
C. milk
D. liquid

93. Elated is to despondent as enlightened is to
A. aware
B. ignorant
C. miserable
D. tolerant

94. Optimist is to cheerful as pessimist is to
A. gloomy
B. mean
C. petty
D. helpful

95. Reptile is to lizard as flower is to
A. petal
B. stem
C. daisy
D. alligator

96. Play is to actor as concert is to
A. symphony
B. musician
C. piano
D. percussion

97. Sponge is to porous as rubber is to
A. massive
B. solid
C. elastic
D. inflexible


More practice questions will be added from time to time. Keep checking this page for adequate preparation. Hope this was helpful?

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